First Name
Last Name
Middle Name
Phone Number

HIPAA

1. HIPAA Privacy Rule protects an individual's right to privacy and confidentiality of health information.
 True False
2. Non-compliance of HIPAA could result in sanctions of criminal and civil charges.
 True False
3. Who is covered by HIPAA?
 Health Plans Healthcare Clearing Houses Healthcare providers who transmit any health information in a standard electronic format All of the above
4. Confidentiality protections cover not just the patient's health-related information, such as diagnosis, but also other identifying information, such as Social Security Number and telephone numbers.
 True False
5. You should check with your supervisor if you are presented with a HIPAA release that you are unsure of how to handle properly.
 True False
6. Computer equipment that has been used to store patient health information must undergo special processing to remove all traces of information before being disposed of.
 True False
7. What does PHI stand for?
 Personal Health Information Private Health Information Protected Health Information
8. In general, PHI releases have to be limited to the minimum necessary to get the job done right.
 True False
9. Documents containing PHI should be kept in a secure location.
 True False
10. In certain situations, providers should release PHI to the Health Department in the interest of public health.
 True False

Section 2: OSHA

11. The MSDS gives you information about the materials, hazards and how to control them.
 True False
12. You can assume the contents of an unlabeled container are harmless if there is no chemical odor.
 True False
13. Patients suspected of having active TB should be isolated quickly.
 True False
14. Hand washing is not required after gloves or personal protective equipment is removed.
 True False
15. Airborne Isolation Precautions must be initiated when a patient is diagnosed with, or suspected of having an airborne communicable disease.
 True False
16. You may prevent injury to your back by using good body mechanics.
 True False
17. When pertaining to a fire, what does the "R" in R.A.C.E stand for?
 Run Rescue Return Retreat
18. Ambulatory patients are to be evacuated last in an emergency
 True False
19. If you know that an error has occurred, even if you think that you did not make the error, you have a responsibility to report it.
 True False
20. When dealing with bodily substances, as long as the staff member is careful, they do not need to wear personal protective equipment.
 True False

Section 3: Age Specific

21. The elderly can hear low frequency tones better.
 True False
22. The best time to ask an adolescent about sexual activity is when their parents are present.
 True False
23. Physical, Financial and Neglect are all types of Elder Abuse
 True False
24. Patient Rights include having pain assessed and managed
 True False
25. The most common injury in an elderly person after falling is:
 Laceration Fractured Hip Broken Wrist Bruises
26. A physician's order is required for the application of restraints.
 True False
27. Walkers, canes and crutches are examples of which type of device?
 Orthotic Assistive Bathing Prosthetic
28. Parkinson's disease may cause
 Muscle tremors Difficulty swallowing Mood changes All of the above
29. The term geriatric pertains to patients who are
 Children Elderly In a nursing home Dying
30. A gradual loss of calcium from the bones that makes them weak and brittle is called:
 Osteoarthritis Rheumatoid Arthritis Osteoporosis Bursitis

Section 4: Nursing Competency and Medication Competency

31. Your patient is taking valporic acid (Depakote). Which of the following is false?
 Valporic acid requires hepatic monitoring Valporic acid has the lowest seizure rate when discontinued Valporic acid is also used in migraine therapy Valporic acid is also used in bipolar disorder therapy
32. Cyanosis and potential cyanide poisoning are possible with:
 Nitroglycerin Nitroprusside (Nipride) Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) Nitrous Oxide
33. Identify the beta blocker:
 Guanabenz (Wytensin) Prazocin (Minipres) Acetbutolol (Sectral) Enalapril (Vasotec)
34. Identify the ACE inhibitor:
 Atenolol (Tenormin) Captopril (Capoten) Propranolol (Inderol) Ranitidine (Zantac)
35. Digoxin (Lanoxin) causes:
 Negative inotropic, positive chronotropic action Negative inotropic, negative chronotropic action Positive inotropic, positive chronotropic action Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic action
36. Asthmatic patients could experience brochoconstriction problems with which of the following agents?
 Isoproterinol (Isoprel) Digoxin (Lanoxin) Pindolol (Visken) Dextromethorphan
37. Hypertensive therapy available as a 7-day patch is:
 Atenolol (Tenormin) Methyldopa (Aldomet) Minoxidil (Loniten) Clonidine (Catapres)
38. Regarding Nitroglycerin
 Tingling on the tongue is a sign of toxicity with the sublingual tablets Special tubing is always used for IV infusion Oral 'nitrates' such as Isordil and Sorbitrate are just as effective as topical patches Care should be taken to avoid absorption of the paste or injection solution onto the skin of the care giver
39. A "4:1" Lidocaine drip contains
 4mg/liter 4mg/100ml 4g/ml 4mg/ml
40. Your patient has a heart rate of 79. After being stabilized on Propranolol (Inderal), what is the likely heart rate?
 84 65 Propranolol has no effect on heart rate
41. An anticholinergenic drug used in Parkinsonism is:
 Unnecessary Benztropine (Cogentin) Levodopa (Larodopa)
42. Antidote for Warfarin overdose is:
 Protamine Zinc Insulin Protamine Sulfate Vitamin K Warfarin
43. Which organ requires monitoring while the patient is undergoing lipid-lowering therapy?
 Kidney Brain Liver Pancreas
44. A classis drug interaction, greatly involving an increased bleeding time, involves warfarin and:
 Vitamin B-6 Acetaminophen Acetylsalicylic Acid All of the above
45. Controlled substances are stored to prevent diversion according to state and federal laws and regulations.
 True False
46. Before administering medications, the following must be verified except.
 Correct patient Correct leg Correct medication Correct route
47. A patient who is allergic to Penicillin will always be allergic to Cephalosporin antibiotics.
 True False
48. Bupropion is also known as:
 Wellbutrin Buspar Bumex Benztropine
49. A medication useful for controlling movement disorders induced by Psychotherapeutic agents is:
 Dantrolene Diphenhydramine Benztropine None of the above
50. Narcotics that are wasted must be signed on the Narcotics Administration Record by TWO approved staff members.
 True False
51. A nurse caring for a patient with Hypocalcaemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?
 Widened T wave Prominent U wave Prolonged QT interval Shortened ST segment
52. A nurse provides instructions to a patient who is taking Levothyroxine (Sythroid). The nurse tells the patient to take the medication:
 With food At lunchtime On an empty stomach At bedtime with a snack
53. An older patient has been taking Cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the patient for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
 Tremors Dizziness Confusion Hallucinations
54. A new Medical Resident orders OxyContin SR 10mg po q12 hours prn. Which part of the order should the nurse question?
 The medication The time interval The dose The route
55. When communicating with a patient who has expressive aphasia, the highest priority for the nurse is:
 Ask open ended questions Understand that the patient will be uncooperative Coach the patient to respond Offer pictures or a communication board so the patient can point
56. A nurse observes that a patient with a chaotic home life appears to be experiencing an allostatic load. As a result, the nurse expects to detect which of the following while assessing the patient?
 Post traumatic stress disorder Rising hormone levels Chronic illness Vital sign returning to normal
57. Your patient has a tracheostomy. You must provide routine tracheal suctioning. You know the main complication of tracheal suctioning is:
 Infection Hypoxia Trauma All of the above
58. You are educating a newly diagnosed 55-year-old male with type 2 diabetes. Which of the following will you tell him is most effective in attaining normal to near normal blood glucose levels?
 Controlling hypertension Weight loss Quitting smoking Exercising
59. You are performing an abdominal exam on a 75-year-old male patient. You note a pulsatile mass just distal to the patient's umbilicus. What should you do next?
 Palpate the mass Call the Physician Auscultate the mass Nothing- this is a normal finding
60. Which of the following are risk factors for Clostridium Difficile infection?
 Recent hospitalization Proton pump inhibitor usage Recent antibiotic usage All of the above